If large movements of money manipulate the market then when would “manipulation” be used to claim an actor was misbehaving?
1) they did a special kind of manipulation clearly against the rules
2) they didn’t do anything different, but the regulators decided they didn’t want them to.
2 would be exactly what I said - their activity has acquired political interest.
Second part: Typical HN when discussing public markets. Zero evidence provided, except "my tin foil hat works".